CRIMINOLOGISTS Licensure
Examination
Second Day - 12:30 p.m. – 2:30
p.m.
=================================================================
REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
CRIME DETECTION,
INVESTIGATION & PREVENTION SET ONE
INSTRUCTION: Select the
correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by
marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only.
MULTIPLE
CHOICE
1.
An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect
is admissible in a court of law if it was made in the presence of a counsel of
his own choice and must be in
A.
the presence of
a fiscal
B.
the presence of a police investigator
C.
writing
D.
front of a judge
C
2.
Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision of the
A. National Bureau
of Investigation
B. Department of the
Interior and Local Government
C. Supreme Court
D. Department of
Justice
D
3.
The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic
way and is most often used to question criminal suspects to determine their
probable guilt or innocence.
A.
Inquiry
B.
Interview
C.
polygraph examination
D.
interrogation
D
4.
A form of investigation in which the investigator
assume a different and unofficial identity.
A.
Tailing
B.
Casing
C.
Espionage
D.
Undercover work
D
5.
A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions
and actions are taken in not losing the subject.
A.
loose tail
B.
casing
C.
pony tail
D.
close tail
D
6.
A type of shadowing employed when a general
impression of the subject’s habits and associates is required.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
A
7.
A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting
the anticipated arrival of a suspect or observing his actions from a fixed
location.
A. Casing
B. Tailing
C. Stake out
D. Espionage
C
8.
An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or
effects or a building, or premises with the purpose of discovering contrabands
or personal properties connected in a crime.
A. Search
B. Raid
C. Investigation
D. Seizure
A
9.
A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional
evidence of a different character to the same point.
A.
Corroborative evidence
B.
Circumstantial evidence
C.
Direct evidence
D.
Real evidence
A
10. The process of
bringing together in a logical manner all evidence collected during the
investigation and present it to the prosecutor.
A.
case preparation
B.
order maintenance
C.
crime prevention
D.
public service
A
11. Ways and means
are resorted for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law breaker during
the execution of a criminal act.
A.
Instigation
B.
Inducement
C.
Buy bust operation
D.
Entrapment
D
12. A special
qualification for an undercover agent.
A.
excellent built
B.
excellent eyesight
C.
excellent looks
D.
excellent memory
D
13. The discreet
observation of places, persons and vehicles for the purpose of obtaining
information concerning the identities or activities of suspects.
A.
close observation
B.
espionage
C.
tailing
D.
surveillance
D
14. The questioning
of a person by law enforcement officers after that person has been taken into
custody.
A.
preliminary investigation
B.
interrogation
C.
custodial investigation
D.
cross examination
B
15. As a general
rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at
A.
day time
B.
night time
C.
any day and at any time of the day or night
D.
weekdays
C
16. Measures through
which police seek to detect crimes, or attempts to be present when they are
committed, through the use of the undercover agents, electronic devices for
wiretapping or bugging, and stakeouts.
A.
preventive measures
B.
countermeasures
C.
pro-active measures
D.
tape measures
C
17. A police activity
directed toward the identification and apprehension of alleged criminals and
the accumulation, preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding their
alleged crimes.
A.
police patrol
B.
police intelligence
C.
Criminal procedure
D.
Criminal investigation
D
18. An extension or
continuation of the preliminary investigation.
A.
initial investigation
B.
custodial investigation
C.
secondary investigation
D.
follow-up investigation
D
19. To obtain
admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose of
A.
Interview
B.
Surveillance
C.
Investigation
D.
Interrogation
D
20. Such facts and
circumstances that would lead a reasonably discreet and prudent man to believe
that an offense has been committed and that the object sought in connection
with the offense are in the place sought to be searched.
A.
prima facie evidence
B.
probable cause
C.
prejudicial question
D.
res ipsa loquitur
B
21.
A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days from
its date. Thereafter, it shall be void.
A.
10
B.
15
C.
30
D.
45
A
22. It means that a
specific crime was committed at a specified time, date and place, and that the
person named in his report committed the crime.
A.
corpus delicti
B.
sufficiency of evidence
C.
stare decisis
D.
parens patriae
A
23. Police seek to
prevent crime by being present in places where crimes might be committed and by
alerting citizens to refrain from practices that make them or their property
vulnerable.
A.
opportunity denial
B.
order maintenance
C.
criminal investigation
D.
police intelligence
A
24. A statement of
the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.
A.
Admission
B.
Confession
C.
Deposition
D.
Accusation
B
25. It may be a
direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty fact as charge or of some
essential part of the commission of the criminal act itself.
A.
Admission
B.
Confession
C.
Deposition
D.
Accusation
B
26. It may be a
self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an acknowledgement
of guilt.
A.
Admission
B.
Confession
C.
Deposition
D.
Accusation
A
27. The simplest type
of interview which concerns with the gathering of information regarding the
personal circumstances of a person who is the subject of investigation.
A.
background interview
B.
personal interview
C.
intimate interview
D.
pre-game interview
A
28. It means method
of operation.
A.
corpus delicti
B.
parens patriae
C.
stare decisis
D.
modus operandi
D
29. It is one which
induces the criminal to act and need not be shown in order to obtain
conviction.
A.
Intent
B.
Motive
C.
Opportunity
D.
Inducement
B
30. The three tools
in criminal investigation, whereby their application varies in proportion on
their necessity to establish the guilt of the accused in a criminal case.
A.
information, interrogation, instrumentation
B.
detection, apprehension, conviction ‘
C.
inquiry, observation, conclusion
D.
magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure
A
31. The simple
questioning of a person who is cooperating in the investigation.
A.
Interview
B.
Inquiry
C.
Interrogation
D.
Instrumentation
A
32. It involves a
number of persons who might have handled evidence between the time of the
commission of the alleged offense and the disposition of the case, should be
kept to a minimum.
A.
chain of command
B.
chain of custody
C.
evidence tracking
D.
tracing evidence
A
33. A kind of
evidence which may link the suspect to the crime scene or offense. Examples are
fingerprints, impressions, blood etc.
A.
physical evidence
B.
associative evidence
C.
tracing evidence
D.
factual evidence
C
34. Articles and
materials which are found in connection with an investigation and which help in
establishing the identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances under which
the crime was committed or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the
criminal.
A.
physical evidence
B.
documentary evidence
C.
tracing evidence
D.
testimonial evidence
A
35.
The following are different techniques in interrogation
except one:
A.
sympathetic approach
B.
emotional appeal
C.
financial assistance
D.
friendliness
C
36.
This may be applicable to a crime scene which is
approximately circular or oval. The
searchers gather at the center and proceed outward along radii or spokes.
A.
strip method
B.
wheel method
C.
spiral method
D.
zone method
B
37.
The area to be searched is divided into quadrants
and each searcher is assigned to one quadrant.
A.
strip method
B.
wheel method
C.
spiral method
D.
zone method
D
38.
The searchers follow each other in the path of a
crime scene beginning in the outside and circling around a central point.
A.
strip method
B.
wheel method
C.
spiral method
D.
zone method
C
39.
A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is
being followed.
A.
Convoy
B.
Caravan
C.
Tailing
D.
Surveillance
C
40.
Another term for tailing.
A.
Impersonating
B.
Backing
C.
Supporting
D.
Shadowing
D
41.
A person who gives necessary information to the
investigator. He may give the
information openly and even offer to be a witness or he may inform the
investigator surreptitiously and request to remain anonymous.
A.
Witness
B.
Expert witness
C.
Hostile witness
D.
Informant
D
42.
The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record
discreetly conversations of other people.
A.
Bugging
B.
Dubbing
C.
Mimicking
D.
Tapping
A
43.
The questioning of persons not suspected of being
involved in a crime, but who knows about the crime or individuals involved in
it.
A.
Interrogation
B.
rumor mongering
C.
interview
D.
inquiry
C
44.
An objective of criminal investigation.
A.
determine the motive
B.
identify criminals
C.
rehabilitate criminals
D.
prevent crimes
B
45.
A term used to describe a transition which occur in
the development of a fire, when, for example, most of all the combustible
surfaces within a room are heated above their ignition temperature at the same
time.
A.
Intensity
B.
Ignition
C.
Flash over
D.
Starter
C
46.
A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed
process of a solid is very complicated, since the proportion of different
flammable vapours varies from one material to another and contact with oxygen
must take place before combustion can begin.
A.
Intensity
B.
Ignition
C.
Flash over
D.
Starter
B
47.
The term describes the transfer of heat through a
gas or vacuum in a similar way to that of light.
A.
Ignition
B.
Convection
C.
Radiation
D.
Conduction
C
48.
The transfer of heat within a solid material from
hotter to cooler parts.
A.
Ignition
B.
Convection
C.
Radiation
D.
Conduction
D
49.
The greatest concern of the firemen at the
fire/crime scene is to
A. interview
witnesses
B. view the site of
the crime
C. preserve the
fire/crime scene
D. phot opportunity
in the fire/crime scene
C
50. Most malicious
fires are set by individuals secretly; it is either set for revenge or self
aggrandizing; or set by psychotic fire setter, or for sexual gratification.
A.
group fire setter
B.
arson for profit
C.
fire starter
D.
solitary fire setter
D
51. The primary
course of action in case of a fire.
A.
pack up and flee
B.
run for your life
C.
call an ambulance
D.
raise the alarm
D
52. The main product
of the combustion of carbon. It is not
poisonous but is an asphyxiant which lowers the proportion of oxygen available
for breathing.
A.
carbon oxide
B.
carbon monoxide
C.
carbon paper
D.
carbon dioxide
D
53.
A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous,
especially when the air supply to the fire is restricted.
A.
carbon oxide
B.
carbon monoxide
C.
carbon paper
D.
carbon dioxide
B
54.
The fire resisting property of structural elements
and the behavior of a building material in a fire, it is used to predict how
long it will resist the effect of a fire before it fails.
A.
fire resistance
B.
fire duration
C.
fire proof
D.
fire strength
A
55.
A type of fire that is the result of the combustion
of certain metals in finely divided forms; magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc….
A.
class A
B.
class B
C.
class C
D.
class D
D
56.
A type of fire which results from burning of wood,
paper, textiles, and other carbonaceous materials. Extinguishment of this fire is by quenching
and cooling.
A.
class A
B.
class B
C.
class C
D.
class D
A
57.
The following are components of fire except one:
A.
Gas
B.
Fuel
C.
Oxygen
D.
Heat
A
58.
It is observed in structural fires and can be an
indicator of the fire travel and point of origin.
A.
Charring
B.
Alligatoring
C.
V pattern
D.
Pour pattern
A
59.
A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in
glass and wood.
A.
Crazing
B.
Spalling
C.
Light bulbs
D.
Charring
A
60.
A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of
the fire and allow him to establish an alibi.
A.
Accelerants
B.
delaying tactic
C.
timing device
D.
stopper
C
61.
It can be readily identified by their distinctive
odors, and the most common examples are gasoline, turpentine and kerosene.
A.
Accelerants
B.
Trailers
C.
timing device
D.
Stopper
A
62.
This catalytic combustion device is the most common
means employed to detect flammable vapors.
A.
Accelerant
B.
Sniffer
C.
timing device
D.
stopper
B
63.
The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a
fire and experience gratification and
satisfaction from it.
A.
fire starter syndrome
B.
pyrotechnic disease
C.
pyromania
D.
pyrophobia
C
64.
It is known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines.”
A.
PD 1108
B.
PD 1017
C.
PD 1081
D.
PD 1185
D
65.
Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and
oxidizer used to set off explosives.
A.
blasting agent
B.
blasting cap
C.
gun powder
D.
explosive primer
A
66.
These are description of materials or compounds that
are easily set on fire except one:
A.
Combustible
B.
Corrosive
C.
Flammable
D.
Inflammable
B
67.
Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80
degree Celsius or 100 degree Fahrenheit.
A.
combustible liquid
B.
flammable liquid
C.
inflammable liquid
D.
corrosive liquid
A
68.
Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with
organic matter.
A.
combustible liquid
B.
flammable liquid
C.
inflammable liquid
D.
corrosive liquid
A
69.
An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the
passage of an electric current across the space between two conductors.
A.
electrical arc
B.
damper
C.
duct system
D.
ember
A
70.
The active principle of burning, characterized by
the heat and light combustion.
A.
explosion
B.
arson
C.
combustion
D.
fire
D
71.
A type of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses.
A.
class A
B.
Class B
C.
Class C
D.
Class D
B
72.
A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a
gas where fluid at one temperature and density moves under the influence of
gravity at different temperatures.
A.
Conduction
B.
Convection
C.
Radiation
D.
Combustion
B
73.
The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or
converted to vapor.
A.
burning point
B.
melting point
C.
freezing point
D.
boiling point
B
74.
The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape
from a collision course or to avoid hazard.
A.
point of no return
B.
point of no escape
C.
start of evasive action
D.
final position
C
75.
The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road
or highway.
A.
Traffic
B.
Flight
C.
Trip
D.
Journey
A
76.
A method of locating a spot in the area by
measurements from two or more reference points.
A.
traffic report
B.
spot report
C.
triangulation
D.
accident investigation
C
77.
The force that tends to pull all objects to the
center of the earth.
A.
Inertia
B.
Friction
C.
Energy
D.
Gravity
D
78.
Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death,
but only injuries to one or more persons.
A.
Fatal
B.
Chronic
C.
Non fatal
D.
Injurious
B
79.
The “Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines
A.
RA 7160
B.
RA 8551
C.
RA 6425
D.
RA 4136
D
80.
An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually
produces unintended injury, death or property damage.
A.
traffic incidents
B.
traffic accidents
C.
traffic hazards
D.
traffic events
B
81.
Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic
way.
A. non motor vehicle
traffic accident
B. non motor vehicle
non-traffic accident
C. motor vehicle
non-traffic accident
D. motor vehicle
traffic accident
D
82.
An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear
in court, but without detaining him.
A.
traffic citation
B.
traffic request
C.
traffic warrant
D.
traffic violation
A
83.
The first accidental touching of an object collision
course or otherwise avoid a hazard.
A.
primary contact
B.
secondary
contact
C.
disengagement
D.
initial contact
D
84.
The following are the three E’s of Traffic
Management and Operation except one:
A.
Engineering
B.
Education
C.
Enforcement
D.
Evaluation
D
85.
The “Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.”
A.
RA 9870
B.
RA 9165
C.
RA 1017
D.
RA 6195
B
86.
Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying
emotional change, thought disruption and ego distortion. They are called
psyhedelics.
A.
Tranquillisers
B.
Hallucinogens
C.
Stimulants
D.
Depressants
B
87.
Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor,
melancholy or dullness of the mind with delusions.
A.
Stimulants
B.
Narcotics
C.
Depressants
D.
Hallucinogens
B
88.
The practice or profession of having sexual
intercourse for money or profit.
A.
Gynaecology
B.
Prostitution
C.
White Slavery
D.
Sex Trade
B
89.
The scientific name of Indian hemp plant.
A. cannabis sativa L
B. Papaver
somniforum
C. deoxyribonucleic
acid
D. methamphetamine
HCl
A
90.
The original components of heroin and morphine.
A.
Codeine
B.
Caffeine
C.
Opium
D.
Methamphetamine
C
91.
An inter department agency that enforce and carry
out the law against illegal drugs.
A.
Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
B.
Bureau of Foods and Drugs
C.
Dangerous Drug Board
D.
Food and Drug Administration
A
92.
A harmful conduct or habit, the indulgence of which
leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind and body.
A.
Vice
B.
Abuse
C.
Addiction
D.
Virtue
A
93.
The most common form of stimulant.
A.
Heroin
B.
Codeine
C.
Morphine
D.
Shabu
D
94.
It is chemically known as methamphetamine hydro
chloride.
A.
Heroin
B.
Codeine
C.
Morphine
D.
None of these
D
95.
A derivative of opium which is used a cough
reliever.
A.
Codeine
B.
Heroin
C.
Morphine
D.
Caffeine
A
96.
Any part of the plant of the papaver somniferum,
including the seeds.
A.
opium poppy
B.
marijuana
C.
caffeine components
D.
codeine
A
97.
Another term for psychological drug addiction.
A.
drug habituation
B.
drug net consciousness
C.
drug pushing
D.
drug dependence
D
98.
Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold
or dispensed only by a physician’s order.
A.
illegal drugs
B.
prohibited drugs
C.
regulated drugs
D.
prescription drugs
D
99.
Any chemical substance that by virtue of its
chemical nature alters the structure and functioning of living organism.
A.
Alcohol
B.
Poison
C.
Drug
D.
Vice
C
100.It is, in most
cases, the initial step for obtaining information to determine the origin and
cause of fire.
A.
Evidence collection
B.
laboratory examination of evidence
C.
interview witnesses
D.
interrogation of suspects
C
- End of Set One -
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